this post was submitted on 09 Apr 2025
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[–] PugJesus@lemmy.world 39 points 2 months ago (5 children)

Explanation: While Ancient Rome's attitude towards homosexuality was not unconditionally positive, it was far more accepting of homosexuality than European society for the next ~2000 years. The Italian fascist dictator Mussolini being both a homophobe and declaring his intention to revive the values of the Roman Empire are in strong contrast with each other.

Also, Mussolini tried to wean Italians off of spaghetti as part of his futurist and autarkist dreams. What a fucking weirdo.

[–] barnaclebutt@lemmy.world 2 points 2 months ago* (last edited 2 months ago) (3 children)

Where are you coming up with this? The Romans were not accepting of homosexuality as they thought it was Greek. They especially looked down on man boy relationships. At least for the praticians. Perhaps for the plebs it as less frowned upon.

https://oxfordre.com/politics/politics/abstract/10.1093/acrefore/9780190228637.001.0001/acrefore-9780190228637-e-1243

[–] reminiscensdeus@lemm.ee 9 points 2 months ago (1 children)

To me that abstract indicates that acceptance of homosexuality was lower in the empire than in the Republic, and even lower in the late empire. However it still sounds like it had some level of acceptance significantly higher than medieval europe or even a hundred years ago. The comment you're responding to said "more accepting" not accepting.

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