this post was submitted on 19 Nov 2025
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This is a very arbitrary way of looking at the problem and you won't see serious linguists claiming this sort of stuff. Latin branching off into a variety of languages and Old English not branching off doesn't change anything about the relationship between Latin and French as opposed to OE vs. Modern English. They're a "parent" and "child" language, and whehter they have any "siblings" is a consequence of their geographical distribution (occupy more space > changes in language not reaching all areas equally > divergence into dialects and languages). Besides, OE is also a parent of Scots, so you actually can't count it as an unambiguous ancestor of Modern English.
Comparing a district in Paris actively using Latin and English undergoing the vowel shift is mixing up internal and external linguistic phenomena.
All the stuff about Académie is not relevant for determining the identity of a language. Institutions tend to have only surface-level effect on language (spelling, prescribing some words, etc., hardly anything that can create or end a language).
Fair points, I’m not a linguist. I mostly was just going off the dates I could find for old-early-middle-modern periods for each language.
The end of the vowel shift was what seemed to separate early-modern from late-modern English, and the establishment of the academy marks the beginning of modern regulations on the French language. As such I thought those were good enough markers to compare the current versions with each other.
Anyway good point about old English also being the source of a language that isn’t English. And yeah I mean trying to gauge the age of a language is bound to be arbitrary since languages don’t abruptly change. Kind of a ship of Theseus situation. At what point did one language become another? Are they the same because we call them all English or are they different because old English and modern English don’t appear to be the same language?