this post was submitted on 26 Sep 2023
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When and how did the "cultured" ways of speech came to be the expected "traditional" norm among the wider population? (lemmit.online)
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The original was posted on /r/askhistorians by /u/DerpAnarchist on 2023-09-26 10:06:03.

Neither Old Korean nor Old Japanese are known to have had honorifics as part of their syntax, as opposed to their modern forms. Yet nowadays, they are essential parts of their language and while they can work without them it is usually considered inappropriate to the degree that few to noone would do it. This would beg the question of how language and customs would change so drastically as to affect everyday speech to this extent, not just for the traditional elites, but for the common people as well.

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