War5oldier

The scenario is this: in the midst of a pandemic, the husband is found dead in his own bedroom but there are no physical scars on his body (autopsy confirmed that he succumbed to Pneumonia) however the wife kept insisting "he died from the virus" as an excuse. She states: "I went to the pharmacy to buy him meds and booked an appointment with our physician as my hubby isn't feeling well" to confirm her words: one must contact both to verify her story if she really was there or if she made an appointment with the doctor.

Investigators called the clinic and they said she made no apppointment and the pharmacy stated a woman fitting her description never went there. Does that make her a liar? Did she neglect her husband for a long time that he passed away? Her defense is that "the virus claimed his life, like it has done to countless people" but the coroners result conflict her statements. Did she use the pandemic as a guise to commit a "perfect murder"? It's because this virus is affecting people's respiratory system.

Now for the legal challenge of proving she intends to murder her husband: she uses the situation of "worldwide pandemic" as a cover up of killing someone as she knows Pneumonia and this "virus" (i.e. similar to COVID) share viral patterns or symptoms alike. "Shortness of breath" for example, is also present in Pneumonia. She might have disguised murder as a homicide sensationalizing off the pandemic by putting on the facade of "my husband died of COVID" (whilst pretending to sob & mourn) towards media outlets.

The real breakthrough is her husband's last will & testament is found and disclosed, so does that serve as intent to murder (for his inheritance money)? As she knows that it has a large amount (8 figure sum) being passed down to a beneficiary after death. The "intent" to murder in this case is closer to neglect (she could've taken care of him but chose to ignore his illness and failed to mention it to doctors) whilst using a pandemic as a cover up framing it on the media as if he died from the virus (but that's not the truth).

Having the will in hand alone is circumstancial, to prove she willingly murdered her husband for his money: one has to have the lawyer (or witness who saw her at the law firm) confirm if she made frequent visits with them whilst he's on the death bed dying in pain.

I know that the 500€ bill ceases to exist on the new series of bank notes (as they capped it at 200€) but those who possess the older series with that denomination can still use it as legal tender, but is it that common for Europeans to have a 200€ bill in their wallet? I've heard as to why they ceased on printing 500€ is mainly relating to both criminal activity or money laundering as that denomation has been abused as such.

200€ is the second highest one, although the older 500€ bill is no longer in circulation. Do ATM's disperse either 500 & 200€ bills regarding cash withdrawals within that amount or do they just give that amount in smaller denominations equating to that much (like consisting of 20, 50 or 100€ bills)? If ATM's don't just give out a 200€ bill when withdrawing that much or more, does one have to visit a bank (branch) to get one?

Putting it into perspective: the Swiss Franc is backed by mutual trust which is something money can't buy (investors have confidence on economic stability during times of crisis) since it's not pegged to another currency or gold despite them having gold reserves. They even have a 1000 CHF bill ($1,269) so it's a strong currency in that sense, they barely circulate it outside.

Do YOU consider the US Dollar a safe haven currency? If it were: it would've received the same status as the Swiss Franc. The reason why CHF is strong is due their trust & confidence alongside a stable economical & political system, put it in comparison: how many Americans have confidence in their own currency? Does the USA have a "truly" stable political system?

The thing is: Switzerland is neutral, meaning they have no incentive whatsoever on becoming belligerents in foreign wars (something the USA can't stay away from since they spend a LOT of money on the military). Their national debt is lower than it is in USA (140m CHF / ~$179m) while in comparison: America's debt has ballooned to around $38,200,000,000,000 if I recall.

It's also tied to their monetary policy (which is highly trusted) hence why they managed to keep inflation relatively low but inflation in America is a joke (no need to say how bad it is). Their interest rate is 0% (can't be said for US Federal Reserve: 3.75%) as Switzerland's goal is to ensure price stability long term while the USA is more on promoting maximum employment.

Like, what’s the point of its existence when that denomination is difficult to come by since ATMs don’t disperse them. I mean, will they still refuse a £50 note when paying for a £45 purchase? They go full counterfeit detection mode just because an individual has it despite that being the real one (not fake). Also, why does the Bank of England keep printing more of that when they know people barely use it anyway?

The scenario is like this: boyfriend has unpaid debt (either from loansharks or the bank themselves) however he died from a terminal illness before debt collectors can get to him, but does his death automatically "erase" the unpaid debt he owes as he's gone?

The thing is, they can't pursue him as he's literally dead. The contract he signed prior to death only bares his name (meaning the debt can't be passed down to either his girlfriend or family) as he's the only signatory listed on paper (while his family are not signatories).

Debt collectors or loansharks show up to his residence only finding out from his girlfriend that he passed away (she has his death certificate to prove it), she reiterates that his debt can't be paid the "conventional" way as he's no longer alive to do that.

I mean, due to the war with Iran: will these currencies (mentioned below) lose value because the strait of Hormuz is under threat despite that route being vital for the transportation of crude oil worldwide?

I'm mainly talking about:

• UAE Dirham
• Kuwaiti Dinar
• Bahraini Dinar
• Qatari Riyal
• Saudi Riyal
• Omani Rial

The thing is that, these currencies are known for being stable due to the demand for crude oil (which ensures demand for their currency), strict monetary polcies from central banks & pegged to the USD.

To put into perspective: the Ukrainian Hryvnia has been devalued by 25% following Russia's invasion deeming it a weaker currency than it used to be. The thing is with let's say the Omani Rial, it's pegged to the USD (same with both QAR & AED) while KWD is pegged to an undisclosed currency basket. Oil is the key player as to why GCC currencies are strong.

With the strait of Hormuz under threat as Iran is attempting to obstruct vessels transporting crude oil, would that mean let’s say the Qatari Riyal will lose value? For instance: the Kuwaiti Dinar is a strong currency but with recent events (like fighter jet being shot down by an Iranian drone or Iran themselves attacking US bases situated in Kuwait) will that status change?